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Old 04-03-2013, 11:49 AM
seekerman seekerman is offline
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Join Date: Apr 2010
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Re: Do OPs have a grace problem?

Quote:
Originally Posted by LUKE2447 View Post
He is purchased at baptism and united in covenant with Christ. "When is grace sufficient" you have a paradigm issue. His provision is always sufficient when you trust and follow His Word/Message given. You want sufficient to mean "his price pays not matter your heart or response to his call or failure to follow him" sry but that is never the case. OSAS is a lie and heretical. Nobody is judged righteous without BEING righteous in response. Only in being righteous can his righteous provision be applied to your life.
Although I disagree with your view that redemption occurs at baptism, at least that's an identifiable point in a person's life. I appreciate your answer.

As scripture suggests, grace isn't a license to sin, but one cannot 'outsin' grace.

Rom 5:20 Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound: 21 That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord. 6:1 What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound? 2 God forbid. How shall we, that are dead to sin, live any longer therein?

We are righteous only in Christ Jesus, our righteousness, apart from Him, is as menstrual rags. Our life should be in Him, through Him and by Him and pleasing to Him.
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