Come Out Of Her My People

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by n david

There is no arbitrary number for Jesus being in the midst, or dwelling among a believer! To say that Jesus is there for two or three is to say He is NOT there for one or four or more! It's absurd that this verse is used as a guide for His being in the midst. I don't know about you, but whenever I pray alone, He's there. I don't need one or two more people with me when I pray in order for Jesus to be there.


So Jesus is not present when you pray alone? What about if there are more than just two or three, is He still in the midst? If, as you say, verse 20 is not about disciplinary matter, why then attach an arbitrary number to it? Why would Jesus, if speaking just about His presence being in a believers midst, why would he attach any number at all?

Because it stems from Deuteronomy 19:



Verses 15-22 are all about dealing with this as a whole. The binding and loosing directly deals with the fault or sin. If the person is unwilling to hear, unwilling to repent, he is bound to the sin; if he is willing, he can be loosed from the sin.


If Jesus is with us individually, why would you believe He wouldn't be with us corporately? It makes no sense.


Deuteronomy 19 and Matthew 18 prove it's true.

Everything you said applies to your own position as well.

The scripture is clear - Jesus promises to be with us wherever two or three gather in His name.

Argue with it if you want, but His Words mean what they say.

[n david]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Everything you said applies to your own position as well.

The scripture is clear - Jesus promises to be with us wherever two or three gather in His name.

Argue with it if you want, but His Words mean what they say.

You ignored the question, so I'll ask again: Is Jesus with one believer in prayer? Is He with four or more gathered together in corporate worship?

And His words about "two or three", in context, are about dealing with trespass or sin.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by n david

You ignored the question, so I'll ask again: Is Jesus with one believer in prayer? Is He with four or more gathered together in corporate worship?

The question is silly. But let's follow the silliness to it's conclusion. Here's a question for YOU: Since you affirm not only that Jesus is with the single, solitary individual, then why does Jesus need to say He is there in the midst of two or three? According to you, it seems Jesus is NOT there (even when dealing with a brother in a trespass) if there are four or five witnesses who have gathered together. After all, since (as you so wonderfully assert) Jesus being in the midst of two or three must somehow rule out one or four...

And His words about "two or three", in context, are about dealing with trespass or sin.

His words about two or three, in context, are about the fact that when two or three believers gather together in His name, He is there. One believer does not a church make. One believer cannot enforce church discipline or carry on any of the functions of the church by themselves.

Jesus did not say nor did He mean 'my words about two or three being gathered together do not apply anywhere else or at any other time, other than when dealing with a brother who sins.'

Notice THE CONTEXT of the TEXT:

18 Verily I say unto you, Whatsoever ye shall bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever ye shall loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.

19 Again I say unto you, That if two of you shall agree on earth as touching any thing that they shall ask, it shall be done for them of my Father which is in heaven.

20 For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them.

See that little word 'for'? It means BECAUSE. Whatever is loosed or bound on earth is loosed or bound in heaven. Not because there were two or three witnesses. But because JESUS IS IN THE MIDST of those gathered in His name, even if it is as small a number as two or three.

He clearly states the REASON why the binding and loosing is valid - "Because wherever two or three are gathered in my name there am I in the midst."

Thus, vs 20 is the stated REASON why vs 18 and vs 19 are valid and true. Thus, verse 20 is a CONDITION, indeed, a sine qua non ('not without which'), a necessary condition, for vss 18-19 to be true.

When A is a REASON (or necessary condition) of B, it does not follow that B is the ONLY occasion where A is valid or applies.

For example, anything passed by the Congress (both Houses) and signed by the President is law. Why? Because they have the authority vested in them by the Constitution, to make law. Similarly, anything ratified by the church is 'law' (ie, valid and recognised by Heaven). Why? Because they have the authority of Christ.

Note: To head off another ridiculous rabbit trail, the above is of course subject to the will of God. Thus, a church cannot 'ratify' that which is contrary to Scripture, just as the Congress and President cannot enact as law that which is unconstitutional (following the Supreme Court which ruled that any 'law' which is unconstitutional is NO LAW and is null and void and is as if it had never existed).

But the fact remains, vs 20 is proffered by the Lord as the REASON why the decision of the church in vs 18-19 is recognised as binding. It is because Jesus is wherever two or more are gathered together in His name.

The fact you seem unable to see what EVERY church, in every age, of every stripe, has been able to see, is beyond my ability to address.

[n david]

Originally Posted by Esaias

The question is silly. But let's follow the silliness to it's conclusion. Here's a question for YOU: Since you affirm not only that Jesus is with the single, solitary individual, then why does Jesus need to say He is there in the midst of two or three?

SMH Because He is speaking in reference to Deuteronomy 19, and verses 15-18 in this chapter. The whole foundation of verses 19-22 are verses 15-18 -- and the root of verses 15-18 can be found in Deuteronomy 19.

Originally Posted by Esaias

Jesus did not say nor did He mean 'my words about two or three being gathered together do not apply anywhere else or at any other time, other than when dealing with a brother who sins.'

Now you're adding to the verse and making assumptions to try and prove a point. I could as easily say, He didn't say it was about anything other than the subject He was currently discussing - verses 15-18.

Originally Posted by Esaias

Notice THE CONTEXT of the TEXT:

18 Verily I say unto you, Whatsoever ye shall bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever ye shall loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.

19 Again I say unto you, That if two of you shall agree on earth as touching any thing that they shall ask, it shall be done for them of my Father which is in heaven.

20 For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them.

See that little word 'for'? It means BECAUSE. Whatever is loosed or bound on earth is loosed or bound in heaven. Not because there were two or three witnesses. But because JESUS IS IN THE MIDST of those gathered in His name, even if it is as small a number as two or three.

1) You're going off the point, which was this verse was used to try and say as long as 2 or 3 are gathered together, God is here. It's not what the verse is about. A lot of preachers use the verse as an excuse for when attendance is down, but it's not correct.
2) You ignore verses 15-18, which is the foundation of the context. I could pick a verse or two out of a series of verses on a subject and make them what I want. It doesn't mean it's correct or in context.
3) Why would Jesus mention 2 or 3 if He's not referring to verses 15-18? It's odd that He would just make up this arbitrary number, which coincidentally is the same number as He mentioned in the verses previous, as a means of saying how many He would be in the midst of.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by n david

1) You're going off the point, which was this verse was used to try and say as long as 2 or 3 are gathered together, God is here. It's not what the verse is about. A lot of preachers use the verse as an excuse for when attendance is down, but it's not correct.
2) You ignore verses 15-18, which is the foundation of the context. I could pick a verse or two out of a series of verses on a subject and make them what I want. It doesn't mean it's correct or in context.
3) Why would Jesus mention 2 or 3 if He's not referring to verses 15-18? It's odd that He would just make up this arbitrary number, which coincidentally is the same number as He mentioned in the verses previous, as a means of saying how many He would be in the midst of.

I did not go off the point, it IS the point. I demonstrated the verse DOES prove that wherever two or three are gathered in Jesus name (in His authority) He is there, and I also showed what that meant and how it applied to the verses in question.

You simply don't like it, and that's fine.

[n david]

Originally Posted by Esaias

I did not go off the point, it IS the point. I demonstrated the verse DOES prove that wherever two or three are gathered in Jesus name (in His authority) He is there, and I also showed what that meant and how it applied to the verses in question.

You simply don't like it, and that's fine.

It's not that I don't like it, I disagree with it because you're completely ignoring (even with your response above) verses 15-18 and Deuteronomy 19.

Answer this: Is Matthew 18:15-22 about how to deal with trespass and sin, or is it about how many people God is with? 15-22 is the context. You cannot separate 15-18 from 19-22. They are inseparable.