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Originally Posted by n david
Speaking of pure eisegesis, you're committing the same offense of which you accuse Aquila.
"The Jews." There is no mention of male or female. "The Jews." You are reading into something which isn't there, when you claim Barnes is only speaking of Jewish males.
Rich, considering Barnes wrote "The Jews" and didn't separate his commentary by whether it was male or female.
False. There is no passage stating women only wore robes. You are reading into something which isn't there. You read about Priests wearing underwear and 3 Jewish guys wearing hose and thought it supports your personal opinion that only men wore bifurcated garments.
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Bingo. We have plenty of commentary that states that men and women wore similar attire. And Barnes speaks of the Jews occasionally wearing pantaloons with their inner garments without distinction of gender. It's plain English. What they don't realize is, both men and women wore pantaloons under their garments, especially in the colder months.