End Time Army of Women Preachers Psalms 68:11

[rdp]

Originally Posted by Sparrow

Might I ask a few questions?

If I have read correctly, according to rdp, women are not permitted to expound scripture to men in a church setting.


No, it's not "according to rdp" - It's according to the Word of God.


11 A woman must quietly receive instruction with entire submissiveness. 12 But I do not allow a woman to teach or exercise authority over a man, but to remain quiet. 13 For it was Adam who was first created, and then Eve.


The Greek verb translated "teach" (διδάσκειν) is lexically defined as (ready for this?): "In the NT, 1321 /didáskō ("teach") nearly always refers to teaching the Scriptures (the written Word of God). The key role of teaching Scripture is shown by its great frequency in the NT, and the variety of word-forms (cognates). This includes three noun-forms, two adjectival forms, and one verb, totaling about 220 occurrences in the NT. (http://biblehub.com/greek/1321.htm).



If you take issue with this lexical data - please offer grammatical & biblical reasons why?


Does this mean women are allowed to expound scripture to other women in a church setting?


Scripture states that older women should teach younger women submission to their husbands (doesn't that just bring out the venom in the ultra-feminists ?), to be keepers of the home, etc. No headship violation occurs is said scenario...I really don't understand how this interacts with the biblical data presented in this thread?


Does this mean women are permitted to expound scripture to men outside of a church setting?


I can only speak where the Bible speaks & be silent where the Bible is silent:


11 A woman should learn in quietness and full submission. 12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to assume authority over a man; she must be quiet. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner....I am writing you these instructions so that, 15 if I am delayed, you will know how people ought to conduct themselves in God’s household, which is the church.



34 Women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the law says.



The Greek verb translated "speak" above is equally translated as "preach" no less than 6 timers elsewhere in the KJV (& this has been explained over & over & over & over - not to you directly, but to those who keep asking for an "answer" ).


Also if I have read correctly, I believe it was rdp who stated it was ok for women to do outreach/soul-winning? According to the statement about women not being allowed to expound scripture to men, does that mean you believe women aren't allowed to witness to men but only to women? I am asking this because I have never been in an outreach situation that doesn't require an explanation of scripture.

I have repeatedly stated in this thread that no saved woman has any business giving Bible studies to unsaved-sinner men. It's simply not proper - particularly when there's innumerable men who can perform the same job. So, your query (& I do believe you're being sincere in your questions ) is only theoretical & not really practical.



Further, as pointed out above, the contexts of I Tim. 2, I Tim. 3, I Cor. 14, Eph. is the assembly of saints together - whereas the context of Mt. 28.19 is winning the lost. Both passages mean precisely what they say in their own contexts (same with the supposed "contradiction" of simultaneous prophecy & silence ) - there's no need to pit one against the other - we can accept & practice both !