Quote:
Originally Posted by mfblume
Acts 10 provides the ONLY evidence of knowing one has INITIALLY experienced Spirit baptism, and that is verified by having all major groups of people converted speak in tongues: Jews, Gentiles and disciples of John. It matters not what denominations agree with that. It is what the bible provided.
|
Then why didn't Paul and Barnabas just say they knew God accepted the Gentiles because when they got saved they received the HG with the evidence of tongues? Why? Why wasn't this common knowledge amongst all the council? Why did Peter have to reference a one time event from years past and connect to another event many years past (the day of Pentecost), if the Gentiles (and Jews for that matter) ALWAYS spoke in tongues when they received the HG?
You also just gloss over
Acts 2:41-47 and the FACT there us no proof or even implication the 3,000 spoke in tongues nor the other examples in Acts I cited.
The only thing
Acts 10 proves is God puts no distinction between Jews, Samaritans, and Gentiles in the church. There are no preconditions to salvation, all is by grace through faith.
Notice also when Peter was preaching to Cornelius's household he didn't mention or seem to expect tongues, he preached salvation by faith (10:43) just like in
Acts 3:19. God did a sovereign work by pouring out His Spirit with an external manifestation SO that Peter and the Jews would make the connection with
Acts 2:4, which CH.11 shows they did.
You argument does not hold up to scripture without filling in several gaps with assumption.
Threaded Mode
