Quote:
Originally Posted by Jason Badejo
Then why didn't Paul and Barnabas just say they knew God accepted the Gentiles because when they got saved they received the HG with the evidence of tongues? Why? Why wasn't this common knowledge amongst all the council? Why did Peter have to reference a one time event from years past and connect to another event many years past (the day of Pentecost), if the Gentiles (and Jews for that matter) ALWAYS spoke in tongues when they received the HG?
You also just gloss over Acts 2:41-47 and the FACT there us no proof or even implication the 3,000 spoke in tongues nor the other examples in Acts I cited.
The only thing Acts 10 proves is God puts no distinction between Jews, Samaritans, and Gentiles in the church. There are no preconditions to salvation, all is by grace through faith.
Notice also when Peter was preaching to Cornelius's household he didn't mention or seem to expect tongues, he preached salvation by faith (10:43) just like in Acts 3:19. God did a sovereign work by pouring out His Spirit with an external manifestation SO that Peter and the Jews would make the connection with Acts 2:4, which CH.11 shows they did.
You argument does not hold up to scripture without filling in several gaps with assumption. |
Can you please tell us where Cornelius "
got saved" before he received the Holy Ghost? Seriously. This is a make or break point.
Certainly Peter preached "
salvation by faith", and God poured out salvation on Cornelius by way of washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Ghost. Receiving the Spirit for regeneration and entrance into the Kingdom was foretold by John the Baptist and Christ and was preached by the Apostles. In short, the new birth of the Spirit and the baptism in the Spirit are one and the same. Nobody can show anywhere in Acts where anyone was first "saved" and then later received the Holy Ghost.
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