Why Do You Believe Jesus is God?

[Sean]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

No what u had been getting at was originally to someone else about the KJV and its translation of the masculine word houto. Your argument is 2 fold that A) the Word can't be a person because the word should be "the same" and not "he" because a masculine pronoun like "he" indicates person hood.

But as I have shown your own translation calls the Word a "Him". How do you reconcile that?

Its your view that such pronouns would love indicate personhood not mine. So if that is your argument then what do you do with vs 4&5?

Verse 4 and 5 are not concerning the LOGOS, only verse 1 and 2 are. I was trying to get us to talk about that. "The same", instead of "HE" is used correctly because it refers to the LOGOS. Things change a bit from verse 3 on.....Logos is not used again until verse 14.