An Exhortation

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by votivesoul

But, Sis. The Aramaic name Yeshua is not found in the Hebrew text of Isaiah 12:2. You don't have to take my word for it. Look it up for yourself. So you cannot insist that a correct interpretation of the text in English is to retranslate the verse to read "God is my Jesus/The Lord Jehovah is become my Jesus".

The name of Jesus is not present in the text in any manner whatsoever. The Hebrew feminine noun yeshuah (note the "h" at the end) is present, but is not and does not correspond to the Aramaic masculine proper noun Yeshua.



Your theology is then inconsistent and incoherent.

If YHVH has become my Jesus pertains to the flesh, then YHVH only became Jesus at the Incarnation, and therefore, Jesus is not the eternal name of God, as you suppose. You can't have it both ways.



The only and only "YHWH Elohim" was always our Salvation, even before any NT revelation of Jesus Christ. There is no "became".

The Word was God and the Word was made flesh.

That allows me to know that He was and is our salvation and His name is Jesus.

You are reading into the text (eisogesis) the phrase "revealed in human form". It does not read that way. It reads "God was manifest in the flesh...", not "God was manifest as the flesh...". There is a key difference of meaning on account of the preposition ἐν.

“Revealed in” is the same as “manifest in”.

It does not automatically follow that the meaning of the phrase "justified in the Spirit" indicates fulfillment of OT Messianic prophecies, from Isaiah or otherwise. You would have to show/prove how.

I Peter 3:18 “For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit.”

Isaiah 9:6 tells us who He is. Isaiah 53 tells us what He did to justify us by His Spirit. It is prophecy fulfilled.

“For your Maker is your husband, The Lord of hosts is His name, And your Redeemer is the Holy One of Israel, He is called the God of the whole earth.” Isaiah 54:5

Voices walk? You sure about that? The Hebrew word translated as "voice" in the KJV simply means "sound".

See: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/genesis/3-8.htm

While the term can refer to the sound of a voice, the context determines the meaning. And since voices don't walk, the proper understanding of Genesis 3:8 is "And they heard the sound of YHVH God walking in the Garden..." which shows that God manifest Himself in angelic theophany and appeared in a visible form to both Adam and Eve.

His voice was on the wind. Genesis never says He became something they could see. It says, they “heard”.

You assume Jesus here means "Jesus", but the text does not indicate that. That is again an example of eisogesis based in an a priori doctrinal position.

It stands to reason that His name is Jesus as there is no other name given among men wherein we must be saved. Remember the scribes saying, “Who can forgive sins but God only?” God manifest in flesh.

It's not my personal view. I wrote that it appears you wrote what you wrote "with such spite". If you say you did not, then I believe you.

Notwithstanding, let's compare your statement "not merely a Son" with some exemplary texts of the New Covenant Scriptures:

Matthew 1:21,

And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Jesus: for he shall save his people from their sins.

Matthew 1:23,

Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.

Yes, let’s just compare those two. That is why I can say, without spite, He was more than just a son. He was God with us.

It is hard not to think you are here to undermine the Oneness doctrine as an Administrator.

On a side note, in my Siddur, Jewish prayer book, it says,”Our God who art in heaven, reveal thy Oneness and establish thy kingdom forever; do thou reign over us forever and ever.”

I always thought that was a UPC term, but apparently, it was s not.