Quote:
Originally Posted by Chan
There is no Biblical evidence that the tongues Paul was referring to in 1 Corinthians was Hebrew. While I agree that, for the most part, the tongues are human languages that the person has never learned, it is utter speculation to say that it was specifically Hebrew.
As for the Nicene or Post-Nicene fathers, I haven't come across writings where any of them have said anything about the tongues in 1 Corinthians.
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thankyou for responding.
Nicene and Post-Nicene Fathers vol. 1 pg 232
"And he became aside himself, and being suddenly ina sort of frenzy and ecstasy, he raved, and began to babble and utter strange things, prophesying in a manner contrary to the constant custom of the church handed down by tradition from the beginning."
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