Quote:
Originally Posted by Kutless
question.....when I read of the second work of grace they are probably speaking of tongues......right?
also in reading Bartleman and the beginnings of Seymour, were they preaching tongues before they themselves spoke with other tongues?
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reason for asking is in regard to
Romans 8:9.......now if any man have not the spirit of Christ he is none of His."
This was a question raised in another reading.