Quote:
Originally Posted by Praxeas
I don't know why John worded it like that in John 1 other than the thought that he was making an argument for those in his day that held to a logos philosophy. |
John 1 is Hellenistic- and 2nd Temple Judaistic-friendly. Perhaps John was looking to make a shocking point to his Jewish people in his audience:
http://nearemmaus.wordpress.com/2010...moses-in-john/
Quote:
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Originally Posted by Praxeas
My view is that the Logos pertains To God and is internal to God.
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You have consider that
pros is translated "within" in
Luke 18:11 because of the middle voice verb and the reflexive pronoun
heauton: the Pharisee does and is the recipient of the action, so it is only proper for "within" to be the proper translation there. The only place I know where
pros is translated "pertaining to" is in Hebrews, but there the preposition modifies nouns, not a verb as in
John 1:1b.
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