Quote:
Originally Posted by rdp
Not hardly....I'm NOT a KJV only man.
Contrare Monfrare...The NLT, NIV, HCBS, RSV, NKJV all reference apparell as immediately connected to terms such as "fine/costly/etc.". This combines the textual criticisms of about 350 linquistical scholars! Sorry Charlie...try again!
Okay then also accept their scholarship w/ I Jn. 5:7, the term "Easter" in Acts & so on! Not hardly........
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Then accept the NKJV authority on the matter.
1 Peter 3:3 NKJV 3 Do not let your adornment be
merely outward—arranging the hair, wearing gold, or putting on
fine apparel—
Why is the word fine in italics? Because it was added by the translators. So, the NKJV agrees with me that there is no greek word for fine in this passage. In fact, they added the words, "merely" and "fine" because they felt those additions helped the passage make sense and not because those words are found in the greek.
Further, what of bible versions such as the NASB, ESV, ASV, YLT, DT that all leave out the word "fine/costly/etc"? What of all the scholars involved in these works? Did they just forget there was a greek word that should be translated as "fine/costly/etc" there? Or is the simple truth that the greek does not support such a word being there and that it was added to many of the modern translations for readability just like it was added to the NKJV?
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