Speaking In Tongues Does Not Equal Salvation.

[BroGary]

Originally Posted by jfrog

In John 3:5 Jesus was speaking figuratively. In fact Jesus spoke so figuratively that Nicodemus had no clue what Jesus was talking about. In Mark 16:16 Jesus was speaking explicitly. If a figurative passage is ever interpreted in such a way that it contradicts an explicit passage then that interpretation of the figurative passage is wrong. Therefore John 3:5 cannot be interpreted to mean that receiving the Holy Ghost with the evidence of speaking in tongues is required for salvation or else John 3:5 would contradict what we just learned from the explicit passage of Mark 16:16.

It seems Peter thought otherwise, that is why he preached Acts 2:38 because his understanding was opened by Jesus after the resurrection.

Luke 24:45 Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures