Speaking In Tongues Does Not Equal Salvation.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by jfrog

Peter didn't say they indirectly caused Christ's crucifixion because they had sinned. He didn't even imply an indirect causation being to blame. Peter said that they took and by wicked hands crucified and slain Christ. That is about as direct of an accusation as it gets.

What am I missing here? THAT WAS MY POINT!

Read it again:

Originally Posted by mfblume

They had to repent of causing Christ's crucifixion, like all of us, only they directly caused it in a way we did not. But in general all who are lost have crucified the Lord since He died for our sins.

You asked what they had to repent about, and I told you. Crucifying Jesus. You said there was nothing stated that they had to repent over. I showed you were wrong. I said they directly caused the crucifixion, where as we did indirectly.

But the question is, who was they that did this? The men of Israel.(Acts 2:22) But as individuals or as a group? I say as a group and this is perfectly consistent with scripture for the men of Israel as a group were directly responsible for the crucifixion.

Right, and that was what they had to repent about.

But, as individuals I doubt the 3000 who converted were all directly responsible for the crucifixion, but they were part of the house of Israel which was responsible.

Right. But that was what they had to repent over. Was not the point the question of what specific thing did they have to repent about? You said nothing was told to them, and I say it was.

Originally Posted by jfrog

There wasn't one sin he told them to repent of that day.