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Originally Posted by missourimary
Peter could have directed these comments to the ones who were asking questions, or to every onlooker. I can teach a class and in the middle of the lesson look directly at a student and say "You need to sit down," without indicating that everyone in the room was standing. Just sayin'...
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When Peter told the HOUSE OF ISRAEL they were guilty, it is pretty plain.
Act 2:36 KJV Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.
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In Ezekiel 5 there is no mention of the rejection of the Messiah, much less of Jesus' crucifixion or their responsibility for it.
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Why was this fulfilled to the "t" in AD70? History shows this is precisely what happened when Rome razed the city. I can provide to documentation if you wish. Do you believe AD70 and Jerusalem's destruction had nothing to do with Jesus being rejected?
Mat 23:35-38 KJV That upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel unto the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias, whom ye slew between the temple and the altar. (36) Verily I say unto you, All these things shall come upon this generation. (37) O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, thou that killest the prophets, and stonest them which are sent unto thee, how often would I have gathered thy children together, even as a hen gathereth her chickens under her wings, and ye would not! (38) Behold, your house is left unto you desolate.
And your response does not answer why Jesus told women that they and their children would cry for the mountains and rocks to hide them.