Quote:
Originally Posted by Jason Badejo
Bro Epley, whydo you require speaking in tongues for salvation when there is no evidence (pun intended  )that the 3,000 in Acts 2:41 spoke in tongues, nor the 5,000 of Acts 4:4? Or for that matter, no evidence in 18 of 21 conversion accounts in the book of Acts, and no evidence from the epistles (where tongues is mentioned in only 1 of 21 epistles) that speaking in tongues was a normative and universal experience of early believers? |
The "with evidence of other tongues" has been said and repeated so often that I've even heard it added by some who recite
Acts 2:38.
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