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Originally Posted by crakjak
According to my study neither the Greek nor the Hebrew scriptures refer to any time that would be "forever" or "eternity", these are completely "Latin" interpretations. As for Rev. 20:10 it is literally interpreted, "for the age of the ages".
Logically what is "forever and ever"? Can there literally be eternity and eternity? There are scholars that have come to these conclusions, I am not a scholar, but I can study and learn. And I have. I am not so arrogant to believe that I could not be missing it in some areas, but I believe scripture fully and strongly support the basic truths that I am sharing.
These were bad guys and they will be in corrective punishment for age or more. Likewise, there will be some evil persons join them for their "part" in the lake of fire. Remember God is a refining fire, his very presence will be fire to all evil, purging HIS creation of death and evil. God apparently is dealing with the redemption of the creation thru a series of ages, in which He accomplishes portions of His purpose in each age. The creation is His workmanship, His masterpiece, His hasn't accomplished His purpose magically, He is working to bring it to pass. |
Rev 20:10 could be "ages and ages" but it could also be "perpetuity and perpetuity", in either case the word "aion" was used twice to reinforce the seriousness, as when Jesus would say, "Verily, verily". I've always understood that to be "perpetually" in the Lake of Fire because, and this is falling back on principal-based study,
Amos 3:7 says, "Surely, the LORD God will do nothing without revealing His secret to the prophets".
Depending on how you look at the "ages" or dispensations, at that point in the Scriptural timeline, time would either be in the "Kingdom Age" or the "Heavenly Age", depending on if you want to separate those two or not. I see them as the same age at this point because it's during the Millenial Reign that all things are made subject to King Jesus and His Kingship continues into the time where Holy Jerusalem is manifest. The point is, God has not disclosed more than one age beyond the Kingdom Age (if any, depending on interpretation) and, if God esteems His Word higher than His Name and cannot lie, as the Scripture says, there wouldn't be "ages and ages" after
Rev. 20:10. This is what got me stuck on this verse yesterday and why I feel the extensive definition of "axion", perpetuity, is more fitting.
That being said, what do you think of this earlier question I asked,
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It sounds to me like your beliefs contradict both the traditional interpretation of Scripture as taught by the RCC (allegorically or symbolically) as well as hermaneutical or dispensationalist teaching (literal). Would you agree with that? How would you classify that teaching?
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