End Time Army of Women Preachers Psalms 68:11

[rdp]

Originally Posted by MissBrattified

Your take seems to be that teaching itself is equal to usurping authority. It seems to me that the usurping authority is what makes the teaching a negative thing. When a woman takes charge and acts of her own accord, out from under the authority of her elders and/or husband, then she "usurps authority" and has no right to teach.

But, the dependent clause translated "nor to exercise authority over a man" is connected by a Greek negating disjunctive conjunction (οὐδέ) - meaning it serves to continue a previous negation - which is lexically defined as:


"3761 /oudé ("neither indeed," "nor indeed") introduces a statement that is negated factually and deductively (it occurs 137 times in the NT). That is, the negation rules out (invalidates) the statement that precedes it, and what naturally extends from it. This is analogous to the following: Because 100 is not enough, then neither are 90, 80, or 70 because they are all included in 100. Thus if "A" (100 in the previous example) is invalid, so is what necessarily follows (statement "B" – 90, 80, 70)" (http://biblehub.com/greek/3761.htm).

My point with Eph 4:11 is only to say that a person can fulfill some offices without having to preach. For instance, a man could pastor a church or be a deacon without preaching. A man can be an elder without preaching. A man can teach and not preach.

On what biblical-textual basis do you assert that a man can pastor a church & yet not preach? Or, that a man can teach & not preach....esp. since "teaching" is lexically defined as "to exposit from the Scriptures" (which it would be virtually impossible to not do while "preaching")?

On the other hand, looking at the Strong's definitions, it appears to me that teaching is expounding on scripture, doctrine and moral teaching, while preaching is a more generic term proclaiming the Gospel/good news and would seem to be something we are all supposed to do. So maybe all Christians must preach, but only some will teach?

But, since you've appealed to Strong's (which is actually a poor source) - here's what he has to say about the Greek verb translated as "speak" in I Cor. 14.34 - "Women should be silent during the church meetings. It is not proper for them to speak. They should be submissive, just as the law says."



"Preach, say, speak. A prolonged form of an otherwise obsolete verb; to talk, i.e. Utter words -- Preach, say, speak (after), talk, tell, utter (http://biblehub.com/strongs/greek/2980.htm).



Will you also accept Dr. Strong's primary definition here?



P.S. - Sorry about the posting style again ....Tired & I'm a creature of habit. Check back in later tomorrow night to continue the fun - church tomorrow .