Praxeas: Ah..actually it was your other voice who said they preached the gospel TO the church. I argued against that. However in this verse it does not say Preach to the church. But I said a long time ago that preaching can be done in the church but that most of the time the word is applied to preaching the gospel to the Lost.
Now you are craw-fishing saying "Well, sometimes this word can be applied to the church". Well, make up your mind Prax - does the word "preach" apply to the church-members or not?
So that's my point then...can a woman preach the gospel to lost souls since she is not doing it IN church?
I have said over & over that women can & should witness to the lost. And, I have even gone so far as to say that if you want to call that "preaching" per-se- then I can even see that 
.
But, the whole tone of this thread has been what modern "women-preachers" do today (so I'm told). That is, getting up IN A CHURCH-SETTING, taking a text from the Bible & expositing to men in the church. When she does that - or is allowed to do that - she (as well as the man who allowed it) is completely out of order viz I Timothy 2.11-14.
So, I am again asking you if you accept Paul's prohibitions regarding women teaching men in I Timothy 2.11-14? So far, you (& virtually every one else in your camp) are only chasing rabbit trails which lead away from the plainness of the passage .
Praxeas: And YOU have defined it in a way that does not match what Jesus did. The Apostles were not quoting
Acts 2:38 when they preached. The NT was not even written yet.
Duh - Ya' think not 
?
And YOU have defined "preaching" in such a way that limits its semantic range - all to cram in your typical preference. So, here, let's try this question again - since you completely ignored it:
I am asking how in the world someone can "preach" to the lost without ever referencing the Scriptures 
??
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