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Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa
is 1 John 3:9 true or false?
1 John 2:1 proceeds 1 John 3:9 how do they correlate perfectly? Also what is the primary instruction of the apostle in the first verse? Also what does the writer mean by "if any man sin?" Would you agree that if isn't the same as when? |
It is true. No saint continues in habitual sinful rebellion. We can know that when a believer sins, it is an act that is against the new nature imparted to the inner man upon regeneration.
Alford notes that "If the child of God falls into sin, it is an act against his nature" (Hebrews-Revelation, p.465). Likewise, Brooke writes:
The fact that he has been begotten of God excludes the possibility of his committing sin as an expression of his true character, though actual sins may, and do, occur so far as he fails from weakness to realize his true character. (The Johannine Epistles, p.89)
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Oh you are. 
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Nope. Corporate election is Arminian, and denies Calvinist election according to predestination.
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