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HOW in the world can James use this scripture per Genesis 15:6 and it be a referenced just before men?
Jas 2:25 And in the same way was not also Rahab the prostitute justified by works when she received the messengers and sent them out by another way
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Well, there's you reading it...the messengers...the city of Jericho...and all of Israel. Seems like there are plenty of witnesses around to see that God had converted her. How would they know that? By what she did. How would God know that? By her faith apart from her works.
Now I would like to make an alternative point. Let's, for argument's sake, allow your argument to stand. Since James' speaks about Abraham's faith being "complete" or "fulfilled" in verse 22, could Abraham finally say that he was justified and saved at that point? If not then what meaning are we to give to the words "complete" and "fulfilled" if Abraham is to continue to "complete" and "fulfill" his faith? Is he to continuously offer up his son in order to continuously "complete" his faith? Or is this event a onetime occurrence that was needed to "complete" his faith and he needed no more works or deeds because his faith was already "complete"? If the previous questions seem ridiculous to you then you should probably revisit the interpretation you give to verse 22. The only interpretation that works, without reducing James' argument to silliness, is that James' is not making an argument about justication before God but rather before men....hence the words "YOU SEE..."
You see?
a
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