Isaiah 3 and jewelry...

[jfrog]

Originally Posted by jfrog

Then accept the NKJV authority on the matter.

1 Peter 3:3 NKJV 3 Do not let your adornment be merely outward—arranging the hair, wearing gold, or putting on fine apparel—

Why is the word fine in italics? Because it was added by the translators. So, the NKJV agrees with me that there is no greek word for fine in this passage. In fact, they added the words, "merely" and "fine" because they felt those additions helped the passage make sense and not because those words are found in the greek.

Further, what of bible versions such as the NASB, ESV, ASV, YLT, DT that all leave out the word "fine/costly/etc"? What of all the scholars involved in these works? Did they just forget there was a greek word that should be translated as "fine/costly/etc" there? Or is the simple truth that the greek does not support such a word being there and that it was added to many of the modern translations for readability just like it was added to the NKJV?

Originally Posted by rdp

Very good Jfrog, but I'm well aware of the italics...which do N-O-T [remember that word] appear in the NIV, NLT, HCSB, RSV, etc. Funny how you left those out...which means that you basically threw away the textual criticisms of about 337 linguistical experts!

Hmmm, I smell a bias in the house!

I had added some to my initial comment before I seen your response (It is in bold).

Also, to specifically address your concern of the word costly not appearing in italics in the NIV, NLT, HCSB, RSV, etc. Do any words appear in italics in those translations?