Isaiah 3 and jewelry...

[mfblume]

This is the rife nonsense argued against Ezekiel 16 to excuse away something God did in His eyes for His lady as though He did something He PERMITTED, but later showed displeasure over. As if.

Re. Ezekiel 16, rdp said...

Originally Posted by rdp

I've already tried to show you that God PERMITTED certain things under the OT, yet He would also periodically show His displeasure for it.

In order for God to show permission for something and later show displeasure, as rdp said here, and yet see GOD HIMSELF said HE CLOTHED Israel in jewelry, is to make God double minded. Permitting someone to do something YOU DO NOT FAVOUR does not mean YOU DO IT YOURSELF.

Need proof? Divorce, He allowed [Deut. 24:1-3], but also stated that He "hated divorce" [Mal.]. In the NT, He says "only for the cause of immorality."

GOD DIVORCED ISRAEL. Hating it means God hated the idea it had to occur. But people have to reconcile the FACT that God divorced Israel Himself with the FACT He hates divorce. The only way to reconcile that is to use common sense and realize the ACT of divorcing is not wrong, OR GOD DID SOMETHING WRONG. It means the situation requiring it is what He hates.

RDP, see if you can answer this directly without hedging. DID GOD DO WRONG WHEN HE DECKED ISAEL WITH JEWELRY? DID GOD DO WRONG WHEN HE DIVORCED ISRAEL?

together with the idePolygamy under the OT, but He also said that Kings shouldn't do so [because they would set the tone for the entire nation]. In the NT, I Cor. 7 & I Tim. 3 modifies that to "one wife." In the OT He permitted the taking of life in war, or for familial vengance, though He also says not to murder. In the NT, Jesus tells us to turn the other cheek. While God ALLOWED these things, in actuality, He also uses terms such as "hate" regarding them.

Did God ALLOW HIMSELF, when in actuality He knew it was wrong, to divorce and to deck Israel with jewelry? Yes or no?

It's the same w/ the ornamental issue Mike. Yes, God allowed it at times [weddings & Rebekah], but also at times showed His strong displeasure for it [Ex. 33, Is. 3 (which, by the way, had nothing to do w/ idolatry or harlotry....only vanity, which still applies!), Hosea 2, Deut. 7:25, etc.].

Why would God do something Himself that He tolerated for men to do but later showed His displeasure in? I really want to see that answer from you.

But in the NT, just as w/ the wives/taking of life/etc., God uses the 2 foremost apostles to simply write "NOT with gold, pearls....", & "NOT....the wearing of gold." What you don't understand is that in many ways the NT is stricter than the OT. We're given more & to whom much is given much is required!

In the OT God simply says, "Thou shalt not kill," "Thou shalt not commit adultery." In the NT a man is not to even look upon a woman w/ lust in his heart. In the NT, if you call your brother a fool, or are angry w/ him w/out cause...you're in trouble w/ God! Since we have received MORE from God, there is more expected BY God!

Jewelry walks hand in hand w/ pride [just ask Lucifer & the daughters of Zion in Is. 3], idolatry, etc. By contrast the whore of Babylon was depicted as "decked w/ gold & precious stones & pearls", while the bride of Christ was arrayed simply in clean & white linen.

So, God in weakness had a problem with pride and later straightened Himself and everyone else out? That seems to be what you are saying.

Let's see some answers, RDP. Try to use a little scholarliness at least instead of the juvenile multitude of question marks and letters in a words.