Quote:
Originally Posted by Truthseeker
explain why. It does appear painting eye is always associate with wicked women or those under judgement.
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Always assosciated with wicked women? Where?
in one verse of the bible?
Theres is ony one verse in the Bible (
2 Kings 9:30) that clearly speaks of eye-painting, which is when Jezebel the queen did so.
(The Is 3:16 thing is a stretch, based on one man's opinion in a commentary. I dont know of any bible version that renders it as "painted eyes". Hundreds of bible translators have looked over that verse while translating the KJV, NIV,RSV,ASV, etc etc.. and none of these versions render it as "painted eyes", so why should Adam Clarke's commentary be taken as being more weighty than all these bible translations we have?)
So again, let me ask that same rhetorical question a different way... if the Bible had said Jezebel put on high heeled shoes, should we then assume that high heeled shoes are a sin? Or if it had said she put on perfume, would that make you think perfume is a sin?