NOW, When Is Someone Saved?

[jfrog]

Originally Posted by sandie

You do realize the people he was speaking to was the body of Christ, these were Chrisitans.
You mention II Corth. 11, in verse 2 he says, "For I am jealous for you with a godly jealousy; for I bethroted you to one husband, that to Christ I might present you as a pure virgin." He has already preached the Gospel to them, and no doubt they have already obeyed, so why would he tell them again, he hasn't even re-preached the Gospel in this chapter.
The epistles are the letters written to the saints. They are already saved.

The epistles are written to church goers so why are they told how to have church? The epistles are written to communion takers so why are they told about communion? The epistles are written to those who done know about the work of Christ so why do they need to be told about it again? The epistles are written to those who know baptism is essential for salvation so why even mention baptism saving in 1 Peter 3:21? Do you understand NOW's point now? He was complaining about the double standard of thinking no apostle would ever mention salvation again because the people they were talking to were already saved. The fact is the epistles mention alot of things to people that already know or practice the things they mention. So why do the epistles mention any of that stuff again if they aren't supposed to mention stuff about things people done have done or done know about?