Quote:
Originally Posted by Praxeas
Actually that does not seem the case to me. It seems that it defines the word then expresses the intent by saying in SOME languages it may need to be translated that way/
Remember this is a greek Lexicon. Greek lexicons try to tell us what a word should mean in OTHER languages (notably English)
Paul does not say he is imposing a vow. He never mentions the Hebrew scriptures.
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If Paul is not imposing a view on the Nazarite vow, then how does a Greek lexicon get to impose the view with their definition of intent - "in some" languages it may need to be translated that way"? If not in all languages, how is that not confusing?
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