Quote:
Originally Posted by Pressing-On
If Paul is not imposing a view on the Nazarite vow, then how does a Greek lexicon get to impose the view with their definition of intent - "in some" languages it may need to be translated that way"? If not in all languages, how is that not confusing?
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Paul does not MENTION that he is speaking of the Nazarite Vow. You are confusing imposing a theological view with an expert in languages addressing translation from one language to another.
Lexicons are dictionaries that inform us of what words mean.
Im not confused by it at all. I don't see the problem.